Ripsnortr
20g
I was having a conversation with a friend and an interesting point came up that I have no insight to and wanted to put it up for discussion.
With the recent battle over the Arizona immigration laws, my very stripped down basic understanding is that federal law trumps state law so therefore the state law was disallowed for that reason. I know I am painting with a very broad brush there, but that was my understanding.
So, my question is this;
If federal law overrules state law, why is it that if the second amendment which is backed by federal law allows me to bear arms, why are states allowed to infringe upon that constitutional right?
I just wanted some insight without starting a flame war because I have gotten so many insightful, well thought out points of view here I wanted to hear what you guys had to say.
With the recent battle over the Arizona immigration laws, my very stripped down basic understanding is that federal law trumps state law so therefore the state law was disallowed for that reason. I know I am painting with a very broad brush there, but that was my understanding.
So, my question is this;
If federal law overrules state law, why is it that if the second amendment which is backed by federal law allows me to bear arms, why are states allowed to infringe upon that constitutional right?
I just wanted some insight without starting a flame war because I have gotten so many insightful, well thought out points of view here I wanted to hear what you guys had to say.